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According to an ex-Christian site, there are many verses in the Bible where it appears God looks down on women. I look up the verses here:

http://articles.exchristian.net/2002...n-in-bible.php

My study Bible explains just about all of them. I see that often times verses are taken out of context.

But then athiests like to use these verses: Deuteronomy 23:28-30 (claims it condones rape and why make the woman marry the one who raped her) and Leviticus 12:2-5 (God says that giving birth to a daughter makes you unclean longer than giving birth to a son and shows unequality for women)

Explain those 2 veres to me please? I know that as Christians we are not under the old laws, but then I wonder what was the reason for these rules. My Bible doesn't go into detail about them.
 
By the way, in my comic Modern Christians, I plan to have my character Tiffany use these kinds of verses to say why she wants nothing to do with Christanity, even when they get explained to her. She's the kind of person who's rebellious, sees the "bad" in Christianity, and can't wait to leave her parents after high school and live the "good life" because her parents are strict "fundie" Christians.

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  • It's all the more strange a stance considering one of the first people Christ sits a spell with and discusses the nature of the Kingdom of God with... is the Samaritan woman at the well. And I cannot think of two people He lauds more for their faith than the woman who washed His feet with tears and the Canaanite woman who said that even dogs could look forward to the scraps.
  • Don't forget Galatians 3:28, "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for you are all one in Christ Jesus." Women are established as ontologically (that is, in the essence of being human) equal with men.
  • It's just such a silly and ridiculous premise. After all, if God hated women, He wouldn't have created them; we (men) would spring forth via parthenogenesis (self-fertilization), if that were the case.

    Eve was the mother of all living (Genesis 3:20); Rahab, formerly a harlot, was converted, and spared whilst Jericho was destroyed (Joshua 6:25) and later married into the line of the Messiah (Matthew 1:5); Deborah was a judge (Judges chapters 4-5); Ruth was a great example of faith and God's Divine favor (see the book of Ruth); Mary was "blessed among women" (Luke 1:28), chosen to be the mother of our Lord Jesus Christ; Jesus spoke to the Samaritan woman at the well, and His disciples marveled at that (John 4:27); Jesus raised a ruler's daughter from the dead (Mark 5:41); He also healed Simon Peter's mother-in-law who was sick with fever (Matthew 8:14), a woman with an issue of blood (Matthew 9:20-22), and a Jewish woman who had been bent over with demonic oppression (Luke 13:16); Phoebe was a deacon (Romans 16:1) at the church of Cenchrea whom the apostle Paul commended for doing well; Tabitha was raised from the dead by Peter (Acts 9:36-40). I could go on and on. There are so many commandments, historical accounts, object lessons, kindnesses that our Lord and godly men have bestowed upon women which are documented in the Scriptures.

    Finally, I'll give you a few quick verses to clinch the argument:

    "Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave Himself for it" (Ephesians 5:25).

    "Likewise, ye husbands, dwell with them according to knowledge, giving honour unto the wife, as unto the weaker vessel, and as being heirs together of the grace of life; that your prayers be not hindered" (1 Peter 3:7).
  • Thanks! I will remember this!
  • David Duarte said:
    Opps, I meant Deuteronomy 22:28-29 sorry. Thanks for the explanations.

    A good response to that verse is in an article I found online here.

    To paraphrase their argument: this chapter is focused on drawing legal distinctions between different sexual behaviors using different shades of meaning in the original Hebrew that are getting lost in translation. The term used in Deut. 22:28 that the NIV translates as "rape" literally means "lay hold of"... which could imply rape, or it could merely be a euphemism for sex. The verses immediately prior to this (Deut. 22:25-27) clearly say that a rapist should be executed. Therefore, it seems clear in context that a better translation of these verses is that a man who rapes a woman was to be killed, but a man who seduces a (presumably) consenting woman would be forced to marry her and to pay restitution to her family for the public embarrassment. This interpretation not only makes more sense in context, it also shows respect and concern for the woman: under this law, a man could not simply "use" a woman and then move on without consequences.
  • Opps, I meant Deuteronomy 22:28-29 sorry. Thanks for the explanations.
  • Hi David,

    On the Leviticus passage first; there is nothing in the different times that denotes one being less than the other. As I understand it, the ceremonial period of uncleanness was a reminder of our being born into sin -- born into a race of people separated from God in the first birth. I did read one person posit that the reason for the double time for the female is that she is one born into sin who will also birth future children into sin. Is that it? I'm not sure, but there is certainly no indication of a favoritism here.

    The other passage from Deuteronomy; I think you have the wrong chapter and verse (there is no verse 28 in chapt 23), but I can add something in more a general sense, as I'm aware of the issue. In almost ever case that has to do with this kind of thing (or slavery, etc.), it can be seen that God is putting a limitation on a behavior that already existed. God didn't invent slavery, but He has allowed man's evil hearts to express themselves -- but only to a point.

    It's so vital to remember that in all circumstances, God is dealing with a man-made situation. Man is the reason for sin entering God's perfect creation - not God.

    And yet, God often has given man what he wants, even when it's not God's best. Take, for instance, Israel's clamoring for a king when God had given them judges. It wasn't God's best and Samuel knew it, but when he sought God in prayer, God told him (Samuel) to "...Heed the voice of the people in all that they say to you; for they have not rejected you, but they have rejected Me, that I should not reign over them." (1 Sam 8:7)

    I personally believe God holds His nose (figuratively, of course) in allowing or setting the limitations on man's sinful behavior. In the slavery example, God gives an amazing prophetic picture of Jesus Christ in the bondservant who chooses to remain a servant to his master forever, his choice sealed by the piercing of his ear with an awl, just as Messiah Jesus' becoming the Servant is signified by His being pierced.

    if you'd like a more about that specific passage in Deuteronomy, find the exact verses. But I think the general approach above, combined with seeking the Lord and learning His character through the full counsel of His Word, will help you with not only this specific challenge, but any future ones, as well.

    God bless--

    Lee
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